Originally Posted by danp
Hi to all and in 1 Cor 15:29 it reads , Else what shall they do which are BAPTIZED FOR THE DEAD if thr dead rise not at all ?? why are they then BAPTIZED FOR THE DEAD ??
So what kind of BAPTISM is this BAPTISM ??
What say you ??
I realize this is a rather old thread and I am surprised that no one took the time to respond to it. “What will those do who are baptized for the dead? Why then are they baptized for them?”
The first thing that has to be acknowledged here is that Paul affirms the existence of this practice. The second thing is that the existence of this practice testifies to the importance the early Church placed on baptism, even though this practice represents a perversion of it. The third thing is that Paul does not ask, “why do you or we” but, why do “they,” whoever the ‘they' were. Paul is clearly separating himself and those at Corinth who did not practice this ritual for the dead, from those who did. It must also be noted that Paul is not giving credence to the practice. He simply acknowledges that some, whom he does not identify, were practicing this and it would appear that it was from among some of those who were claiming there was no resurrection. This reveals the existence of yet another faction that existed among those at Corinth just like this who were forbidding to marry. Just like those who had divided into factions over baptism, etc…. Some were teaching that there was no resurrection from the dead while at the same time practicing this proxy ritual of baptism for the dead. Paul is not offering a defense for this practice. Rather, he is stressing the obvious absurdity of denying the resurrection and then baptizing for those who had died. How would they propose to defend the logic of this? Paul is not legitimizing the practice, he is showing the absurdity of it.