Where does the Bible say specifically that you are only to have sex after marriage? With all due respect, I don't want scripture about sex occuring after marriage, as I know and have seen all those examples. I want to know where the mandate is given that we should not have sex before we're married. I can think of one example when sex happened pre-marriage and that was David and Bathsheba. The circumstances were wrong, but David wasn't punished for pre-marital sex, he was punished for stealing another man's wife. Also, it is my understanding that sex makes a marriage a marriage; before hand, historically, it is questionable or contestable ( the marriage) and can easily be annuled if consumation doesn't happen. NT. Christ told the woman that was accused of adultery of having husbands that were not hers. What does that mean? That she must've been sleeping with those men and that made them her husband without any religious ceremony or anything of the such.

Enlighten me, please. Thanks!

[Amadeus]

You are right that marriage in scripture is not definitely defined as commencing with a ceremony. However, once a marriage is consummated it exists with all of its obligations in the eyes of God!

Man has added many rules, traditions and/or laws with regard to marriage. Also in the United States (and some other countries) there are a few States that still recognize common law marriages as legal marriages.

If the question is when does God consider us married, then I would say that usually when we consider ourselves married, then He would probably also consider us married. But... we cannot play games with God. He knows exactly what is in our hearts and will judge us accordingly.

People can lie to you and me as to whether or not they are married, but they cannot get away with lying to God.

As to sex before marriage being disallowed, if the sex is forced by one person on another that is specifically forbidden in the Old Testament. In the New Testament sex outside of marriage would likely be considered fornication by God [Acts 15:20]. If the first act is considered by both parties to be in consummation of their marriage, that of course would be differerent.

If people choose to violate man's laws and want to lean on scripture to support their position that they are married, they had better search their hearts carefully, because God will have already done that! [Remember here also, "...Render to Caesar the things that are Caesar's, and to God the things that are God's...." Mark 12:17]

Originally Posted by Amadeus

You are right that marriage in scripture is not definitely defined as commencing with a ceremony. However, once a marriage is consummated it exists with all of its obligations in the eyes of God!

Man has added many rules, traditions and/or laws with regard to marriage. Also in the United States (and some other countries) there are a few States that still recognize common law marriages as legal marriages.

If the question is when does God consider us married, then I would say that usually when we consider ourselves married, then He would probably also consider us married. But... we cannot play games with God. He knows exactly what is in our hearts and will judge us accordingly.

People can lie to you and me as to whether or not they are married, but they cannot get away with lying to God.

As to sex before marriage being disallowed, if the sex is forced by one person on another that is specifically forbidden in the Old Testament. In the New Testament sex outside of marriage would likely be considered fornication by God [Acts 15:20]. If the first act is considered by both parties to be in consummation of their marriage, that of course would be differerent.

If people choose to violate man's laws and want to lean on scripture to support their position that they are married, they had better search their hearts carefully, because God will have already done that! [Remember here also, "...Render to Caesar the things that are Caesar's, and to God the things that are God's...." Mark 12:17]

why did the Christ refer to the woman's five sex partners as husbands if they weren't her husbands "legally?"

[Amadeus]

Originally Posted by onegodonename

why did the Christ refer to the woman's five sex partners as husbands if they weren't her husbands "legally?"

Perhaps she considered all five of them as her husbands and Jesus spoke of them that way so that she would understand His meaning.

For someone without the Lord in their lives [living in their unrepented sins] the marriages may have been legal in accord with the laws of Samaria [man's laws].

When a person submits themselves to God, the situation changes!

"...For unto whomsoever much is given, of him shall be much required:..." Luke 12:48

Originally Posted by Amadeus

Perhaps she considered all five of them as her husbands and Jesus spoke of them that way so that she would understand His meaning.

For someone without the Lord in their lives [living in their unrepented sins] the marriages may have been legal in accord with the laws of Samaria [man's laws].

When a person submits themselves to God, the situation changes!

"...For unto whomsoever much is given, of him shall be much required:..." Luke 12:48

Or He was speaking to the act of sleeping with them pre- a ceremony making them such.

Anyway...I need some clarity on this. Anyone?

[Amadeus]

Jesus was not condoning what she had done, but neither did He condemn. People are condemned already anytime have unrepented sin in their lives. They are able to change the situation by repenting. Repenting means being sorry AND changing the wrongful behavior thereafter! What is or is not unrepented sin, can only be determined on a actual case by case basis BY GOD!

Looking definite rules to fit every situation will result in library of information which will fail to consider some circumstances. This is why only God can make the final judgement call.

Originally Posted by Amadeus

Jesus was not condoning what she had done, but neither did He condemn. People are condemned already anytime have unrepented sin in their lives. They are able to change the situation by repenting. Repenting means being sorry AND changing the wrongful behavior thereafter! What is or is not unrepented sin, can only be determined on a actual case by case basis BY GOD!

Looking definite rules to fit every situation will result in library of information which will fail to consider some circumstances. This is why only God can make the final judgement call.

Thanks...so it's a heart thing?

[Amadeus]

Originally Posted by onegodonename

Thanks...so it's a heart thing?

Yes... But it does make a big difference who rules your heart! God or yourself!

Originally Posted by Amadeus

Yes... But it does make a big difference who rules your heart! God or yourself!

I don't want to rule my heart. My rule will send me to hell. and while I'd rather be warm, I hate to be hot

[Amadeus]

Originally Posted by onegodonename

I don't want to rule my heart. My rule will send me to hell. and while I'd rather be warm, I hate to be hot

Amen! Give God all of the glory always!