Did it start with the Birth of Messiah?

Anyone know for sure?

Originally Posted by onegodonename

Did it start with the Birth of Messiah?

Anyone know for sure?

Actually I believe it stated with Melchizidek before the law of commands was even given, was it not? Jesus was the fulfillment of the promise.

Originally Posted by onegodonename

Did it start with the Birth of Messiah?

Anyone know for sure?

I believe the New Testament, or New Covenant, began at the resurrection of the Savior. If you recall, the veil of the temple was torn in two at the death of the Savior, signifying that Israel had broken its covenant with God by crucifying the very One with whom the covenant had been made originally. Once Jesus had risen from the dead, the law of Moses was no longer effectual for anyone—a new covenant was then available to all people, regardless of lineage.

We could also say that the New Testament began at the birth of the Savior, or at the start of his ministry. In the end, it probably doesn't really matter when it began (exactly). That the new covenant is available to all—that does matter.

Considering that the four predominent books in the NT are the "Gospels" which means "Good News", I would say that the NT began when there was some Good News to preach. So maybe it began when Christ's ministry began.

This seems to be an exercise in semantics, depending on how you are defining "New Testament"

[Linsinbigler]

Bruce is right in that the promise was given with Melchizedek. We have the "evangelisasthai" of Luke 1.19, and the "beginning of the Gospel of Jesus Christ, the Son of God" (despite what other posters have said) at the beginning of Christ's ministry in Mark 1.1. The first time that we have reference to the "new testament" is Christ's offering "The New Testament (covenant) in my blood" on that first Holy Thursday (Matthew 26.28; Mark 14.24; Luke 22.20 1 Cor. 11.25), which is why Bruce correctly pointed out that the foreshadowing was in Mechizedek. As CC pointed out also correctly, this could degenerate into semantics fairly easily.

[CI]

Hbr 9:17: For a testament [is] of force after men are dead: otherwise it is of no strength at all while the testator liveth.

The blood of our Lord Jesus Christ, and that by His death on the cross, brought about the new covenant.

Prior to that was the mindfulness of the covenant. But, strength came into the new covenant (to give us the knowledge of God and make us His people who are free of sins in iniquities) when the Testator, Jesus the Christ, died at Calvary.

Melchizedek did not die; Jesus the Christ who is an eternal priest in the order of Melchizedek did die!

[NotFinishedYet]

Originally Posted by onegodonename

Did it start with the Birth of Messiah?

Anyone know for sure?

What are you really asking here, dear heart? What truth is it you seek or what teaching has you troubled? Since you're asking if anyone knows for sure, it seems that whatever is behind this question has caused you some confusion. Please expand. Peggy

[christkid777]

It might depend on how you look at the word testament. It comes from "to testify". That would imply the new testament was born as Christ spoke the words from His mouth. If you consider the word testament to mean covenant than it was birthed when God spoke to the serpent in the garden and promised the seed of the woman would crush his head. If you look at it as divine fulfillment it was birthed before the beginning of the world when God foresaw the death of His son on the cross.

[Linsinbigler]

Originally Posted by CI

The blood of our Lord Jesus Christ, and that by His death on the cross, brought about the new covenant.

Prior to that was the mindfulness of the covenant. But, strength came into the new covenant (to give us the knowledge of God and make us His people who are free of sins in iniquities) when the Testator, Jesus the Christ, died at Calvary.

Melchizedek did not die; Jesus the Christ who is an eternal priest in the order of Melchizedek did die!

Hence the words "promise" and "foreshadowing."